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Question 48 : The inequality \\log _{a}{f(x)} < \log _{a}{g(x)}\\) implies that

- f(x) > g(x) > 0 for 0 < a < 1 and g(x) > f(x) > 0 for a > 1
- g(x) > f(x) > 0 for 0 < a < 1 and f(x) > g(x) > 0 for a > 1
- f(x) > g(x) > 0 for a > 0
- g(x) > f(x) > 0 for a > 0

f(x) > g(x) > 0 for 0 < a < 1 and g(x) > f(x) > 0 for a > 1

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The question is **"The inequality \\log _{a}{f(x)} < \log _{a}{g(x)}\\) implies that" **

Choice A is the correct answer

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